emergency management
Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on emergency management.
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with subjective fever, chills, and nausea. He reports some recent constipation. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, both well-controlled on medication. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 95 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa, with mild rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are reduced. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests show a white cell count of 15 x 10^9/L (neutrophils 85%), haemoglobin 145 g/L, platelets 250 x 10^9/L, C-reactive protein of 120 mg/L. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are within normal limits. Liver function tests are normal. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 55-year-old man presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain and mild constipation. He denies fever, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, he is afebrile, BP 120/70, HR 65, O2 sat 99% on air. There is mild LLQ tenderness without guarding or rebound. Bloods show WCC 11.5, CRP 30. A CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?
A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation, the laboratory results, and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate therapeutic intervention?
A 45-year-old male with a known history of Blue Rubber Bleb Naevus Syndrome, characterised by recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions, presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with reduced bowel sounds. Vital signs are within normal limits. An urgent abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
A 55-year-old patient with a history of solid organ transplant on immunosuppressive therapy presents with a two-week history of intermittent fever, chills, and dull right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Blood tests reveal a white cell count of 14 x 10^9/L and CRP of 120 mg/L. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical context and the provided images, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?
A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with subjective fever, chills, and nausea. He reports some recent constipation. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 95 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bowel sounds are reduced. Blood tests show a white cell count of 15 x 10^9/L (neutrophils 85%) and C-reactive protein of 120 mg/L. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are within normal limits. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A 72-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a 2-day history of increasing pain and a developing lesion on her right lower leg. She denies trauma. Her INR is therapeutic at 2.5. Vitals are stable. Considering the clinical presentation and the image provided, what is the most appropriate immediate management?
A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. He has a history of similar, milder pain episodes. Examination reveals left iliac fossa tenderness with guarding. Bloods show WCC 16, CRP 120. A CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical picture and the imaging findings, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A 72-year-old male with acute cholangitis is undergoing ERCP for stone extraction. The image is obtained after cannulation. Based on the findings, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the procedure?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. An abdominal ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 65-year-old man presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. On examination, he is afebrile, haemodynamically stable, with localised tenderness in the LLQ. Blood tests show a WCC of 14.5. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?
A 65-year-old presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. On examination, there is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Vitals: BP 130/80, HR 90, RR 16, SpO2 98%. CRP is 150 mg/L, WCC 18 x 10^9/L. This image is obtained as part of the workup. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe pain and tenderness in his right groin, associated with nausea. He reports a long history of an intermittent swelling in this area, similar to the appearance shown, which he could previously push back. On examination, the swelling is firm, exquisitely tender, and irreducible. Vital signs are stable. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?
A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of sudden onset, severe pain and swelling in his right groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. On examination, there is a tender, firm, non-reducible lump in the right inguinal region. Bowel sounds are present. Vitals are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, Temp 36.8°C. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, shown in the image. Integrating the patient's symptoms, physical examination, and the findings shown in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step?
A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of right groin pain that started approximately 6 hours ago. He reports noticing a bulge in his groin for several months, which he could usually push back in. However, today he is unable to reduce it, and the pain has become progressively severe. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm, and temperature 37.0°C. Abdominal examination is benign. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The area is tender to palpation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of intermittent abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 24 hours. He reports passing a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. He denies any fever or chills. His past medical history is significant for multiple cutaneous hemangiomas, which he has had since childhood. On physical examination, his abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation in the periumbilical region. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. The patient is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the results of which are shown. Given the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this infant?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a palpable mass. Vitals stable. Ultrasound performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 45-year-old patient with a known history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of intermittent, colicky abdominal pain and nausea. They report chronic fatigue and have a history of iron deficiency anaemia requiring occasional transfusions. On physical examination, vital signs are stable (BP 120/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C). There is mild diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding or rebound. Cutaneous examination reveals multiple blue-purple papules and nodules scattered over the trunk and limbs. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, known history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?
A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?
A 68-year-old presents with a 3-day history of fever, jaundice, and severe RUQ pain radiating to the back. Vitals: T 38.5°C, BP 110/70, HR 95. LFTs show bilirubin 150, ALP 450, ALT 120. An ERCP is performed for stone extraction. The image is captured during the procedure after cannulation. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management during the current procedure?
A previously healthy 2-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of colicky abdominal pain. His parents report that the pain occurs in episodes, during which he cries intensely and pulls his legs up to his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable. He has had one episode of vomiting. His parents also noticed a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. On examination, the child is alert but irritable. His abdomen is soft, but a palpable mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, with a representative image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?
A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, if outpatient management is deemed appropriate, which of the following antibiotic regimens is most consistent with current Australian guidelines?
A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 45-year-old patient with a long history of recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with acute onset severe abdominal pain, nausea, and distension. Physical examination reveals a distended, mildly tender abdomen. Bowel sounds are reduced. Vital signs are stable. Imaging is performed. Considering the patient's presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management approach?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. His vital signs are stable. On examination, he is pale. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?